Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 10:05
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why, after a divorce, would one still want to ruin the other one’s life?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Can you write a short story with a twist ending?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What is one fantasy you have never told anyone about but really want to do?
There's no rule.